I have another question for Navision Application
at Form 29 (Vendor Ledger Entries), I have for a vendor that the Original Amount is -124,74
and the Remaining Amount is 0,40
is it okay?
i felt it is not correct because i think it must be minus too (-0,40) for the remaining amount
it just happend to one record at one vendor (let’s say vendor A)
could anyone tell me why this could be happened…
thanx for the answer
Take a look at the detailed entries, for that line and also to to the applied entries.
Applied Entries
Posting Date Document No. Currency Code Original Amount Amount Closed by Amount Closed by Currency Code Closed by Currency Amount Entry No.
28/04/05 K US 32 USD 113,00 113,00 113,00 USD 113,00 112608
28/04/05 K 394 USD 11,34 11,34 11,34 USD 11,34 113463
28/04/05 K 394 USD 0,40 0,40 0,00 0,00 113464
Detail Ledger Entries
Posting Date Entry Type Document No. Amount Amount (LCY) Initial Entry Due Date
04/04/05 Initial Entry PI2005/0166 -124,74 -1.183.034,16 04/04/05
28/04/05 Application K US 32 113,00 1.071.692,00 04/04/05
28/04/05 Application K 394 11,34 107.548,56 04/04/05
28/04/05 Application K 394 0,80 7.587,20 04/04/05
31/12/05 Unrealized Gain AJE 0,00 138,40 04/04/05
is it error?
Mhmm… something looks wrong actually, but it is difficult to tell from where the error originates.
The invoice has a Remaining Amount of 0,40 because the sum of the applied documents is 124,78 - that’s right.
The Urealized Gain is indeed weird - it doesn’t balance the local currency amount, which is what such a post should be for. Actually it shouldn’t be there at all, since there isn’t any unrealized gain in that set of postings - the currency rate is the same for all of them and the umbalance is due to an exceeding payment.
At least this is what I can guess from your data, but there might be unseen things which I can’t take into account and even seen things that I failed to consider! [:)]
What does your accountant think of this mess? He/she might know more than we do!
The unrealized gain was came from adjust exchange rate at year end. This case was raised by accountant which they thought this case doesn’t make sense how come the invoice could be overapllied against the payment and so did the payment ,with still have same remaining amount but different sign with the original amount sign . Do the navision system allow the overapplied transactions?